The non religious bit was added later and more as a contrast to the religious (and being such it is still fits the bill of singling out based on religion).
How can contrasting a non-religious influence fit the bill of singling out a religion? Are you implicitly suggesting that voting according to some religious belief is the same as voting without the contraints of such religious beliefs?
There is an obvious (and flawed) point of view of the OP being that religious will vote republican through some ability to divine the will of God. There is so much wrong about a conclusion like that, that the only thing one can deem from it is prejudiced person.
That does not follow; the way the thread's question is phrased leaves any respondants to answer "yes" or "no" without overtly considering 'divining the will' of any deities. Your conclusion jumps the gun in estimating the intent of the question. Although it does inherently presume that the voter either does or, does not believe in a "god", this doesn't necessarily influence the voting process. Theoretically, a voter who believes in "god" can vote without that belief having any overt influence on their vote, (which is equivalent to a non-believer voting without a disbelief having any influence over their voting).
Considering that he has repeatedly accused me of being a racist and a homophobic because I believe in God I cannot really conclude anything else except that it is purely prejudicial against religion.
The irony of being "prejudiced" against someone who is prejudiced would be humorous were it not so prevalent.